101 QUESTIONS FOR
Sorry, Mr. Davis. I'm Not a Campbellite!
The pastor of the First Baptist Church in Nowata, OK,
was A. A. Davis. In a book containing a series of sermons and
other information, he listed 101 questions for
"Campbellites" which have been posted on several
denominational websites. I'm sure these questions have been
answered many times before by more capable defenders of truth
than I. Nevertheless, we must give a defense of the Gospel, and
I, like Paul, "am set for the defense of the
gospel" (Phil. 1:17). This will involve a series of
articles in answering all 101 questions.
Before beginning his 101 questions, Mr. Davis asks,
"What are Campbellites?" His answer is simply,
"They are otherwise known as 'The Church of Christ' or 'The
Disciples of Christ,' and believe that Water Baptism is essential
to salvation in Jesus Christ."
It is no wonder why he uses such a derogatory term in
reference to members of the church of Christ. He is clearly
trying to bring us down to the level of the manmade Baptist
Church. His Baptist roots go back to a man, and if he can take
"church of Christ" roots back to Alexander Campbell
then we are put on the same par, and we have become nothing more
than "Campbellites." However, be assured we are not
"Campbellites." The church of Christ goes much further
back than either Alexander Campbell or his father, Thomas -- yea,
nearly seventeen hundred years before either were born.
You can read about the church of Christ in prophesy
(Isa. 2:2-4), and in the promise Jesus made to His disciples when
He said, "I will build my church" (Matt.
16:18). Whose church? Christ's church -- the church of
Christ. You can read about the church of Christ as it was
established in the city of Jerusalem on the day of Pentecost
during the days of the Roman empire (A.D. 30) in Acts 2. You can
also read about its evangelistic efforts in the remaining pages
of the book of Acts. In addition, you can read about individual
congregations of the churches of Christ in the pages of the
epistles from Romans through Revelation. And, if you want to read
about it specifically by name, read Romans 16:16,
"Salute one another with an holy kiss. The churches
of Christ salute you." Find such about the
Baptist Church! You cannot!
The Baptist church, with all of its manmade
doctrines, didn't exist until 1607 AD -- about sixteen hundred
years too late! It is not our desire to be harsh, but to point
out facts, and these are the facts of the matter. Unlike the
churches of Christ, the founder of the Baptist church was
John Smythe, not Jesus Christ. And, instead of being founded
in Jerusalem, it was founded in Holland. I'm sorry Mr. Davis, I'm
not a Campellite! You can try if you will to pull me down to your
level and give me some manmade name, doctrine, and church, but
what is the purpose? Is it to effect an honest evaluation of
truth? Or, is it to slander and steer people away from the facts?
I have spent the major portion of my life "searching the
scriptures," and though I have read a little about Campbell,
I really do not know what he taught or believed, and don't really
care, for Campbell was a man, and my desire is to go far beyond
what man teaches -- back to a "thus saith the
With this in mind, we begin here with Mr. Davis' 101
questions with Bible answers:
"1. Are YOU saved or Lost? See 1 Cor. 1:13.
My salvation really has nothing to do with the
at hand. Whether I'm saved or lost, doesn't change what the
Scriptures teach. The question should be, "what saith the
Scriptures?" So, there is no mistake as to what these
teach, 1 Corinthians 1:13 says, "Is Christ divided? was
crucified for you? or were ye baptized in the name of Paul?"
Romans 8:1 says, "There is therefore now no condemnation
them which are in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh, but
after the Spirit." Since these questions ultimately
baptism, then consider this question, "How does one get into
Christ?" The question is answered in Galatians 3:27,
many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on
Christ." Now I know that doesn't agree with Baptist
but that's what the truth says -- that's what the Holy Spirit
Concerning the first passage: Paul was addressing the
problem of division in the Corinthian church. There were
some followed Paul, some Apollos, some Cephas, and some Christ
(v.12), but here is Paul's point: neither Paul, Apollos, nor
were crucified for them (or us), and they were not baptized in
name of anyone but Christ. What does it mean to be baptized in
name of Christ? "In the name of ___," means by the
of that person. The Christians at Corinth were not baptized
by the authority of Paul, but by the authority of Christ. In
Matthew 28:18-20, Jesus said, "All power is given unto
heaven and in earth. Go ye therefore, and teach all nations,
baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of
the Holy Ghost: Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I
have commanded you: and, lo, I am with you alway, even unto the
of the world. Amen." Thus, to be baptized by the
Christ, is to baptize "in the name of the Father, and of the
and of the Holy Spirit."
Concerning the second passage: "All
blessings" are "in Christ" (Eph.
1:3). Since all
spiritual blessings are "in" Christ, there cannot be
blessings "outside" of Christ. To be in Christ, one
must not walk
"after the flesh, but after the Spirit." To walk after
is to walk according to how the Spirit guides and directs. Today,
that is accomplished through the Spirit inspired word -- the
Let there be no mistake, the Spirit through the Word of God
each person to be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the
remission of sins. On the day of Pentecost in the city of
Jerusalem, the apostle Peter, being filled with the Holy Spirit
(Acts 2:4), in answer to the question, "Men and
shall we do?" said, "Repent, and be
every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the
of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy
"2. If saved, IS the love of God in YOUR
Romans 5:5 says, "And hope maketh not
because the love of God is shed abroad in our hearts by the Holy
Ghost which is given unto us." The love of God has been
extended and shown to all mankind ("shed abroad" or
through the sacrifice of Jesus Christ. True biblical hope is
founded upon the evidence that God will keep His promises. God
promises salvation through Jesus Christ who is "the
eternal salvation unto all them that obey him" (Heb.
Hope without obedience is an empty pursuit. Therefore, the Lord's
people obey him. To believe, teach and obey denominational
(as the Baptist Church teaches) does not obey the Lord and
therefore can have no hope!
"3. If Saved. ARE you Born of God? 1 John
In 1 John 5:1, the Bible says, "Whosoever
believeth that Jesus is the Christ is born of God: and every one
that loveth him that begat loveth him also that is begotten of
him." The term "believeth" is used two ways
First, it is used as mere belief -- knowledge of facts. James
"Thou believest that there is one God; thou doest well:
devils also believe, and tremble" (James 2:19). The
have a knowledge of facts, but they certainly are not saved.
Second, belief is often used inclusive of acts of faith. When
was in Philippi, he and Silas were beaten and imprisoned. After
miracle of the earthquake, the jailhouse doors were opened, and
"everyone's bands were loosed," the jailor asked,
must I do to be saved" (Acts 16:19-30)? Paul answered,
"Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, and thou shalt be
saved, and thy
house" (Acts 16:31). Was Paul commanding them to
believe? The Bible says no. Why? Because of the following verses.
In verse 32, the text says, "And they spake unto him the
of the Lord, and to all that were in his house."
Because "faith cometh by hearing, and hearing by the
word of God"
(Rom. 10:17), their faith was being increased by the word spoken
them. Verse 33 goes on to say, "And he took them the
of the night, and washed their stripes; and was baptized, he and
all his, straightway." Why did the jailor and his
their stripes? Because they were repenting of their sin of
Paul and Silas. By washing their stripes, they were helping the
healing process, and thus correcting their sin as much as humanly
possible. Also, notice in this verse, they were baptized. In
34, we find them rejoicing. Why? Because their sins were washed
away. At the point of mere belief? No! After they repented and
baptized. Finally, notice the summary Luke gives by inspiration,
"believing in God with all his house." Luke
all they did in the word "believing." Thus, we see this
sometimes used to include acts of faith.
What is the application to our text? Remember John
wrote, "Whosoever believeth that Jesus is the Christ is
of God." Baptist doctrine teaches that for one to be
God, all a person has to do is believe -- have knowledge of
However, the Bible teaches that for one to be born of God, one
be obedient to the truth. The "belief" John is writing
about is the
second type of belief that includes acts of faith. Peter wrote,
"Seeing, ye have purified your souls in obeying the
In the very next verse, he wrote, "Being born
of corruptible seed, but of incorruptible, by the word of God,
which liveth and abideth for ever." The truth is the
God (John 17:17). People are born again when they have purified
their souls. They purify their souls when they obey the truth.
Thus, they are born again when they obey the truth. When is that?
When they are baptized into Christ.
To Nicodemus Jesus said, "...Except a man
again, he cannot see the kingdom of God. Nicodemus saith unto
How can a man be born when he is old? can he enter the second
into his mother's womb, and be born? Jesus answered, Verily,
verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the
Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God" (John 3:3-5). Thus, to be born
again is to be born of water and the Spirit, which is water baptism.
"4. If Saved, Is Christ in You? Col. 1:27;
2 Cor. 13:5."
Colossians 1:27 says, "To whom God would make known what is the riches of the glory of this mystery
among the Gentiles; which is Christ in you, the hope of glory."
2 Corinthians 13:5 says, "Examine
yourselves, whether ye be in the faith; prove your own selves. Know
ye not your own selves, how that Jesus Christ is in you, except ye
be reprobates?" The second passage will help us understand
the first. Notice from this passage to "be in the faith"
is the same idea as to have "Christ in you." Also, from
John 15:5 we learn Jesus is in us when we are in Him. Jesus said,
"I am the vine, ye are the branches:
He that abideth in me, and I in him, the same bringeth forth much
fruit: for without me ye can do nothing." Thus, if a
person is saved, Christ is in him/her, and he/she is in Christ.
5. "If you are Born of God, ARE you a
Child of God? John 1:12; Rom. 8:16."
John 1:12 says, "But as many as received him, to them gave he power to
become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his name."
Again, to "believe on His name" is more than to
simply have knowledge of facts. It is to trust God to the extent of
having an obedient faith. This faith is described in James 2:24, "Ye see then how that by works a man is
justified, and not by faith only."
Romans 8:16 says, "The Spirit itself beareth witness with our spirit, that
we are the children of God." Baptist doctrine (and
denominationalism in general), in the quest to advocate a direct
operation of the Holy Spirit, has led to much confusion over this
passage. There are two witnesses in this text, not just one -- the
witness of the Holy Spirit and our (the human) spirit. The Holy
Spirit witnesses to God, "This is your child," and the
human spirit, based upon evaluation of heart and life, determines
whether one has become and is remaining a child of God.
6. "If a Child of God, do YOU have Eternal
Life? John 10:27, 28."
In John 10:27-28, Jesus said, "My sheep hear my voice, and I know them,
and they follow me: And I give unto them eternal life; and they
shall never perish, neither shall any man pluck them out of my
hand." Baptists use this passage to support their human
doctrine of the impossibility of apostasy. Is this what Jesus is
saying? The short answer is no. Why? First, because of so many
passages that contradict this doctrine (Heb. 6:4-6; Gal. 5:4; 2
Peter 2:20-22). Second, such a doctrine removes man's choice, man's
free will, which God has given to each of us. One may choose life,
then because of the temptations of this world choose also to go back
into the world (Luke 8:13). This is what Simon the Sorcerer did
(Acts 8:13-24) as well as Demas (2 Tim. 4:10). Third, such an
interpretation ignores the fact that salvation is conditional. Jesus
knows the sheep who hear His voice and follow Him. To those who hear
and follow, He gives eternal life. Eternal life is not promised to
those who once heard His voice and once followed but are no longer
hearing and following. Thus, eternal life is conditional upon
hearing and following Jesus.
7. "Is Baptism a PART of the Gospel? 1
In 1 Corinthians 1:17, Paul wrote,
"For Christ sent me not to baptize,
but to preach the gospel: not with wisdom of words, lest the cross
of Christ should be made of none effect." In this text we
learn that Paul's mission was to preach the Gospel. The desired
purpose of preaching the Gospel is to lead one to obey the Gospel.
Hebrews 5:9 says Jesus "became the
author of eternal salvation unto all them that obey him." Also, consider Romans 6:17 which
says, "But God be thanked, that ye
were the servants of sin, but ye have obeyed
from the heart that form of doctrine which was delivered
you." What was the "form of doctrine" they
obeyed? Earlier in Romans 6, Paul answers the question. It was water
baptism which is a pattern or form of the death, burial, and
resurrection of Christ (vs.3-6). Couple that with the fact that Paul
preached the Gospel to the church at Corinth which again included
the death, burial, and resurrection of Christ (1 Cor. 15:1-4). Then
consider Acts 8:35ff where Philip preached Jesus unto the eunuch.
Surely all would agree preaching Jesus is the same as preaching the
Gospel. In response to Philip's preaching Jesus, the eunuch said,
"See, here is water; what doth hinder
me to be baptized?" In preaching the Gospel, Philip
included water baptism. Why else would the eunuch make such a
request? Therefore, every time the Gospel (or Jesus) is preached,
water baptism is a part of it.
8. "Could a man without ARMS and Legs
preach the Gospel Paul preached?
Absolutely! However, does that mean
those who hear the Gospel are not responsible for obeying the
Gospel? Absolutely not! Just because the preacher has no arms and
legs does not in any way release another from his or her
responsibility. Who baptized the Corinthians? We do not know, but
just because Paul did not baptize many of them, certainly does not
mean they were not baptized, for no one has ever become a Christian
without first being baptized (Acts 2:38,41; 22:16; Rom. 6:3-6,17-18;
Gal. 3:27; 1 Peter 3:21). Jesus Himself did not baptize anyone, yet
there were more baptized under his teaching than the teaching of
John (John 4:1-2).
9. "What is the Gospel Paul Preached? 1
As we noted in question 7, the Gospel
included preaching the death, burial, and resurrection of Jesus
which is the "form of doctrine" the Christians in Rome
obeyed in being baptized (Rom. 6:3-6, 17-18).
10. "Do you preach the Gospel Paul
preached? 1 Corinthians 1:17; Romans 1:16,17; 1 Corinthians
Romans 1:16-17 says, "For I am not
ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto
salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to
the Greek. For therein is the righteousness of God revealed from
faith to faith: as it is written, The just shall live by
faith." Who is the person that is ashamed of the Gospel?
The one who declares "all the counsel of God" or the one
who declares only that portion that agrees with his theology?
Baptist Davis does not teach baptism for the remission of sins, but
Peter did (Acts 2:38,41; 1 Peter 3:21), Philip did (Acts 8:12-13,
36-39), Ananias did (Acts 22:16), Paul did (Rom. 6:1-18), John did
(Mark 4:1) and Jesus did (Matt. 28:19; Mark 16:16). Therefore,
Baptist Davis does not teach the whole counsel of God and therefore
must be ashamed of the Gospel of Christ.
In 1 Corinthians 2:2 Paul wrote, "For I determined not to know any thing
among you, save Jesus Christ, and him crucified." Is Paul
saying the only thing the church is to teach is "Jesus Christ,
and him crucified?" I think not! Paul himself did not believe
that! In the book of 1 Corinthians alone, Paul taught about unity,
fornicators, brothers going to law against brothers, marriage, the
Old Testament, spiritual gifts, and giving, to name only a few
topics. A casual glance into the New Testament readily reveals a
major portion of it contains more than just "Jesus Christ, and
him crucified." However, everything in the Bible centers upon
that fact. "Jesus Christ, and him crucified" is the focal
point of all that we read about in the Bible. Without "Jesus
Christ, and him crucified," there is no redemption, no need for
obedience, and no need for instruction. The reason behind all that
Paul and all inspired writers wrote is "Jesus Christ, and him
crucified." Today, faithful Gospel preachers declare "all
the counsel of God" including water baptism because Jesus is
the Christ who was crucified for the sins of the whole world.
11. "Is Baptism an act of SOVEREIGN GRACE
performed by God or is it an act of righteousness on man's part?
Matthew 3:15; Titus 3:5."
Both! It is an act of the sovereign
grace of God to reveal His will to mankind. Also, because all God's
"commandments are righteousness"
(Psalm 119:172), then it is an act of righteousness to obey
God's righteous commandments. Concerning the Lord's baptism, Jesus
told John the baptizer it was to "fulfill all
righteousness" (Matt. 3:15). Could the same be said of anyone
baptized with John's baptism? No, John's baptism was "the baptism of repentance for the
remission of sins" (Mark 1:4; Luke 3:3). All those
baptized by John, except Jesus, received the remission of sins. Why
wasn't Jesus baptized for the remission of sins? He had no sins to
in Titus 3:5 wrote, "Not by works of
righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he
saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy
Ghost." Water baptism is not a work of "man's
righteousness." Man did not conceive of it, nor did he
institute it. Water baptism is a work of "God's
righteousness." God introduced it and commands men to obey Him
in being baptized. By the redemptive act of Jesus, God saved us. Our
salvation was "not by works of righteousness which we have
done." Those who are saved did not in any way earn salvation,
but in great contrast, salvation came "according to his
mercy." It came "by" (through or by means of)
"the washing of regeneration" which is baptism. The word
"washing" comes from the word meaning laver or bath. It is
also used in Ephesians 5:26 which says, "That he might sanctify and cleanse it with the washing
of water by the word." The word "regeneration"
literally means "again beginning" and refers to the new
birth which consists of water and spirit (John 3:3-5) and a
resurrection unto "newness of life" (Rom. 6:4; see also 1
Peter 1:23 and 2 Cor. 5:17). That is only accomplished in water
12. "Were you redeemed by the precious
waters of Baptism or by the precious BLOOD of Jesus Christ? 1 Peter
According to this passage, all who are redeemed are redeemed "with the precious blood of Christ."
The question is, how do we come in contact with Jesus'
redeeming blood? By mere belief? No. Why? Because "the devils also believe, and tremble" (James
2:19). A person comes in contact with Jesus' redeeming blood when
he/she is baptized "into Christ" (Gal. 3:27). He shed his
blood in his death, and it is only when we take part in his death in
water baptism that we contact his blood (Rom. 6:3-6).
13. "If Baptism LITERALLY puts one IN
CHRIST, What act LITERALLY puts CHRIST in You? 2 Cor. 13:5; Col.
1:27; Rom. 3:24,25."
From John 15:5, we learn when a
person is saved, Christ is in him or her, and he or she is in Christ
(see question 4, page 28). When a person is "baptized into
Christ" (Rom. 6:3; Gal. 3:27), Christ is in them.
14. "Did Jesus Christ know the plan of
Salvation? John 14:6."
Absolutely! Jesus said, "I am the way, the truth, and the life: no
man cometh unto the Father, but by me" (John 14:6). The
only way to the Father is through Jesus. "What shall we do?" Jesus said, "for if ye believe
not that I am he, ye shall die in your sins" (John
8:24). Jesus also said, "I tell you,
Nay: but, except ye repent, ye shall all
likewise perish" (Luke 13:3). Further, Jesus said, "Whosoever therefore shall confess me before men, him will I confess also before my
Father which is in heaven" (Matt. 10:32). Finally, Jesus
said, "He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that
believeth not shall be damned" (Mark 16:16). Not only did
Jesus Himself teach the plan of salvation, He taught it through His
apostles to whom He promised to give the Comforter who taught them
all things and brought all things to their remembrance (John 14:26).
15. "Did Christ at any time or place
personally tell a sinner to be baptized FOR or in ORDER to the
Remission of Sin? If so WHEN and WHERE?"
To prepare the Jewish nation for the
establishment of the Messianic kingdom (the church), John preached,
"Repent ye: for the kingdom of heaven
is at hand" (Matt. 3:2). Jesus' message during His public
ministry was the same (Matt. 4:17). Furthermore, Mark records John
preached, "the baptism of repentance
for the remission of sins"
(Mark 1:4). Since Jesus' preaching and baptizing is
compared to John's (John 4:1-2), then we know that Jesus' baptism
during His public ministry was for the same purpose -- "...for the
remission of sins" (though He did not baptize anyone
Concerning baptism "in the name of
Jesus Christ for the remission of sins," He did not
personally tell anyone to obey such. Why? Because He lived under the
Old Testament, and His will (i.e. the New Testament) was not yet in
force. Hebrews 9:15 teaches Jesus "is
the mediator of the new testament." Verse 17 goes on to
say, "For a testament is of force
after men are dead: otherwise it is of no strength at all while the
testator liveth." Therefore, Jesus' will, the New
Testament, was not in force while He lived upon the earth. It came
into effect after He was dead and after it was proclaimed. However,
though He did not teach it personally Himself, He did teach baptism
for the remission of sins. As we noted in the previous question, the
Comforter or Holy Spirit brought all things to the apostles'
remembrance. What the apostles taught was not their interpretation
but was God's and Christ's Will. Peter, with the eleven, by the
inspiration of God said, "Repent, and
be baptized every one of you in the name of
Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the
gift of the Holy Ghost" (Acts 2:38). Thus, Jesus did teach
baptism for the remission of sins both personally, and through the
16. "Did Christ personally, at any time or
place say to anyone, He That is Baptized not shall be damned?"
It is really
amazing the length to which some will go to teach their doctrines!
One can twist the scriptures anyway he wants, but still Jesus said,
"He that believeth and is baptized
shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned"
(Mark 16:16). Since that implies, "he that is baptized not
shall be damned," then so let it be. However, it seems to me we
ought to be more concerned with what to do to be saved than to be
damned, and in this passage, Jesus taught two conditions of
salvation -- belief and baptism. Baptism is an act of obedience
based upon one's faith. If a person does not believe, then he or she
is not a candidate for baptism. Obedience is simply a demonstration
of one's love and faith. Jesus said, "If ye love me, keep my commandments" (John
14:15). James wrote, "shew me thy
faith without thy works, and I will shew thee my faith by my
works" (James 2:18). The person who does not believe will
be lost, and the person who does not act upon his faith by being
baptized will also be lost.
17. "Is that Statement: HE THAT IS
BAPTIZED NOT SHALL BE DAMNED, to be found anywhere in the Bible? If
Jesus said, "He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he
that believeth not shall be damned" (Mark 16:16). One can
twist it anyway he wants, but it still implies, "he that is
baptized not shall be damned." Who am I to argue with the Lord?
My responsibility (as is all men's) is to obey what he taught!
18. "Do you and your brethren, self-styled
CHURCH OF CHRIST, not preach and teach, in word, precept and effect,
that 'HE THAT IS BAPTIZED NOT SHALL BE DAMNED'?"
Because of Jesus'
commission, those preachers who are faithful to God and to His word
teach, "He that believeth and is
baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be
damned" (Mark 16:16). Since that implies, "he that is
baptized not shall be damned," then so let it be.
19. "Do you not further pollute your own
imaginary scripture by inserting TWO imaginary requirements: (1)
That it must be administered by a Church of Christ preacher, and (2)
that when the candidate goes under the water, he MUST BELIEVE that
act is for OR IN ORDER TO THE REMISSION OF HIS SINS????"
Is Mark 16:16
imaginary? I think not. What a blasphemous thing to say! Baptist
Davis' hatred and antagonism for the church of Christ oozes out of
his pen! Concerning the one doing the baptizing, God has not spoken.
There are no qualifications upon the one baptizing mentioned in the
Scriptures. Therefore, it does not have to "be administered by
a Church of Christ preacher."
Concerning the purpose of
baptism, God has spoken.
- Baptism is for the remission of sins
- Baptism places one into Christ (Gal. 3:27).
- Baptism places one into the church (1
- Baptism is the new birth (John 3:3-5).
- Baptism doth also now save us (1 Peter
one is going to be baptized correctly, he/she needs to know why
he/she is being baptized.
20. "Do you not reject Baptist Baptism
because of the absence of these two points????"
No, Baptist baptism
should be rejected because it is not administered for the God given
- Baptist doctrine teaches a person is
saved or has the remission of sins at the point of belief.
Therefore, baptism cannot be for the remission of sins since
they already have it.
- Baptist doctrine teaches a person is in
Christ at the point of belief. Therefore, baptism cannot place
one in Christ since they are already in Christ.
- Baptist doctrine teaches a person is
born again at the point of belief. Therefore, baptism cannot be
the new birth since they are already born again.
21. "Since you and your brethren
ADMITTEDLY preach and teach the above doctrine, in word and deed,
and since such statement can not be found in the Scriptures. He That
is Baptized not shall be damned, Is it NOT TRUE that you teach a
doctrine that IS NOT in the Scriptures?"
Baptist Davis would like to think so.
However, Mark 16:16 is still in the Scripture. Jesus said, "Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my
words shall not pass away" (Matt. 24:35). Mark 16:16 is
eternal. Long after I or Mr. Davis is gone, Mark 16:16 will still be
22. "You, furthermore, proclaim, your
motto: Where the Bible speaks we speak, where the Bible is silent,
we are silent: WHY DON'T YOU REMAIN SILENT ON ABOVE DOCTRINE, 'He
that is Baptized not shall be damned.' BE SILENT, SUCH statement is
NOT IN THE BIBLE."
Over the years, different ones have
taken a penknife and removed certain passages they did not agree
with. A person can reject God's message, but His message does not
change. Jesus still teaches, "He that
believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not
shall be damned" (Mark 16:16). Since that implies,
"he that is baptized not shall be damned," then so let it
be. Who are we to change what Jesus taught?
What is really interesting about this
question is how Mr. Davis can apply this to others but not to
himself. He like other Baptists teach a person is saved by
"faith only." Do Baptists speak where the Bible speaks,
and are they silent where the Bible is silent? Dear reader, please
listen to the inspired words of James, "Ye see then how that by works a man is justified, and not by faith only" (James
2:24). As the old adage goes, "What is good for the goose, is
good for the gander."
23. "Since your entire approach is builded
on an imaginary scripture which does not exist, your every effort is
made to twist other scriptures and compel THEM TO MEAN your
imaginary Scripture. NOW IS THE STATEMENT FOUND IN THE BIBLE: 'He
that believeth not shall be damned'? Baptists preach that exactly as
listed. DO BAPTISTS PREACH WHAT IS IN THE BIBLE? Now watch him
In John 14:9, we can feel the frustration of Jesus as he said to
Philip, "Have I been so long time with
you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip?" We could
say, Have we been so long time with you, and yet you still don't
understand the Scriptures? Mark 16:16 is not imaginary! Yes, Baptist
preachers preach "He that believeth not shall be damned."
In fact they teach most of Mark 16:16. They also teach, "He
that believeth shall be saved." In reality, that is saying
"He that believeth and is baptized not shall be saved."
However, Jesus still teaches, "He that
believeth AND is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not
shall be damned." Why don't Baptists just do what Jesus
said? Because it doesn't agree with their doctrine, that's why!
Baptists have their imaginary doctrine of "faith only."
"Have we been so long time with you...?"
24. "Is there an instance in the Bible
where a sinner was saved without Baptism? Acts 15:9; Luke 7:48; 1
John 5:4; Acts 26:18; Eph. 1:11-13."
There are no instances in the New
Testament age where a sinner was saved without water baptism. Acts
15:9 concerns what is normally referred to as the "Jerusalem
Conference" which was a discussion about Gentiles being added
to the church. During this discussion, Peter said, "And put no difference between us and them, purifying
their hearts by faith" (Acts 15:9). Whom was Peter
speaking about? Specifically, Cornelius. What was Cornelius told to
do? Acts 10:48 says, "And he commanded
them to be baptized in the name of the Lord." Cornelius
obeyed the commandments of the Lord "by faith."
Luke 7:48 concerns an
incident that happened under Old Testament law, "while the testator liveth" (Heb. 9:17). The
Law of Christ, which includes baptism, did not come into effect
until after the testator died and after His will was proclaimed.
This took place in the city of Jerusalem on the day of Pentecost in
5:4 says, "For whatsoever is born of
God overcometh the world: and this is the victory that overcometh
the world, even our faith." What kind of faith is the
victory -- simple belief, or a living, active faith? As we have
already pointed out, it is the living, active faith which obeys.
Notice John earlier wrote, "And hereby
we do know that we know him, if we keep his commandments"
(1 John 2:3). John, most certainly, did not believe in
"faith only" salvation as does Baptist Davis.
Acts 26:18 says, "To open their eyes, and to turn them from
darkness to light, and from the power of Satan unto God, that they
may receive forgiveness of sins, and inheritance among them which
are sanctified by faith that is in me." This text is about
Paul preaching the Gospel to the Gentiles. Did Paul preach
"faith only" salvation? No, of course not! Paul taught
Lydia, and she was baptized (Acts 16:14,15). He also taught the
Philippian jailer and his household, and they were baptized (Acts
16:30-34). Further, he taught the Corinthians, and Luke records, "...and many of the Corinthians hearing
believed, and were baptized." Yes, they were all "sanctified by faith." But what
kind of faith? A faith that included works of obedience. "For as the body without the spirit is
dead, so faith without works is dead also" (James 2:26).
Paul wrote in
Ephesians 1:11-13 "In whom also we
have obtained an inheritance, being predestinated according to the
purpose of him who worketh all things after the counsel of his own
will: That we should be to the praise of his glory, who first
trusted in Christ. In whom ye also trusted, after that ye heard the
word of truth, the gospel of your salvation: in whom also after that
ye believed, ye were sealed with that holy Spirit of promise."
Here, and again, belief is used in the broad since that
includes obedience (see question 3, page 27).
25. "Is Baptism a command to and for the
Saved or Unsaved? Which? Remember there is only ONE BAPTISM!"
If baptism is
for the saved, then it could not be for the remission of sins (Acts
2:38). Nor could it place one into Christ (Gal. 3:27) where
salvation is (2 Tim. 2:10). Further, it could not place one into the
church (1 Cor. 12:13) because the church is composed of the saved
(Acts 2:47). Also, it could not be the new birth (John 3:3-5)
because the saved are already born again. Furthermore, if baptism is
for the saved, then it could not save (1 Peter 3:21) because the
saved are already saved. But the Bible says it does save (Acts
22:16; 1 Peter 3:21). Therefore, the command to be baptized is for
those who are lost -- the unsaved.
26. "If to the UNSAVED are not the unsaved
UNBORN OF GOD? Now, do you give commands to your child BEFORE IT IS
BORN OR AFTER it is born? Can an UNBORN child obey a parent?"
straining out the gnat and swallowing a camel! If Baptist Davis is
like every Baptist I've met, he doesn't even believe this. I've
heard Baptists in person, on the radio, and in writing refer to John
3:16 and say something to the order of "believe and you will be
saved." Are they not commanding unborn children to do this?
Are the unsaved unborn
of God? Of course they are. Did Jesus and the apostles command the
unsaved? Absolutely! When the unsaved asked, "what shall we do?" Peter said, "Repent, and be baptized every one of you
in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall
receive the gift of the Holy Ghost" (Acts 2:38).
Furthermore, we are children of God by adoption (Rom. 8:23; Gal.
4:5). A Christian is born into the family of God by the Spirit of
adoption. The new birth, redemption, and adoption are all figures
referring to a person's conversion to Christ. How does the lost
(unborn) learn? Listen to Peter, "Seeing ye have purified your souls in obeying the truth
through the Spirit unto unfeigned love of the brethren, see that ye
love one another with a pure heart fervently: Being born again, not
of corruptible seed, but of incorruptible, by the word of God, which
liveth and abideth for ever" (1 Peter 1:22,23).
27. "Do you and your Brethren not teach
that the COMMANDS of God are given to the UNBORN and that they, the
commands are but instruments BY WHICH the UNBORN can obtain
It is amazing how some folks can twists figures, and then not even
apply them to themselves. In questions 3 and 5 (pages 27-28),
Baptist Davis used (or better misused) Scriptures to teach salvation
by "faith only." In fact, he misused 1 John 5:1 to teach
the new birth comes by "belief only." Doesn't that make
you wonder if he teaches the unborn to believe that God for Christ's
sake has pardoned their sins?
28. "You boast of LOGIC -- where is there
any LOGIC to this matter?"
My point exactly! Baptist Davis takes
the Nicodemus approach to the new birth. "How can a man be born when he is old? can he enter the
second time into his mother's womb, and be born?" Listen
to what Jesus said! "Verily, verily, I
say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he
cannot enter into the kingdom of God." There are some
similarities between the new birth and physical birth, but the new
birth is not physical birth. Though there are similarities, there
are also differences:
What is this spiritual
birth? The Bible is its own best commentary. What sayest the
Scriptures? 1 Corinthians 12:13, "For
by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body...."
Romans 6:4, "Therefore we are
buried with him by baptism into death: that like as Christ was
raised up from the dead by the glory of the Father, even so we also
should walk in newness of life."
Titus 3:5, "Not by works of
righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he
saved us, by the washing of regeneration,
and renewing of the Holy Ghost."
- Physical birth is impossible for those
already born. Spiritual birth is not.
- Physical birth does not add one to
God's kingdom. Spiritual birth does.
- Physical birth does not consist of
water and Spirit. Spiritual birth
29. "If you say -- Baptism is a command
for the SAVED -- you find yourself in the BAPTIST position, EXACTLY.
This you do not teach or believe. See Acts 2:41. WHO was baptized
we have shown in questions 19 & 20, baptism is not a command for
the saved. Acts 2:41 says, "Then they
that gladly received his word were baptized: and the same day there
were added unto them about three thousand souls." Those
who "gladly received his word"
were those who were baptized "for
the remission of sins" (v.38) and "the Lord added to the church daily such as should be
30. "Do you and your Brethren not also
teach and believe -- that Jesus Christ was not the Son of God until
after His Baptism?"
The term "son" is used in
two ways in Scripture. First, it is used of the offspring of
parents. Second, it is used to express relationship. According to
the first usage of this word, Jesus became the Son of God when Mary
conceived the Christ-child in her womb. When "the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us,"
Jesus became "the only begotten
of the Father" (John 1:14), "the only begotten Son" (John 1:18; 3:16,18).
However, Jesus was eternal (John 1:1; Col. 2:9). As an eternal
being, He could not have been begotten in the since of offspring.
Thus, the term "Son of God" sometimes refers to the
relationship Jesus has with the Father. John wrote, "In this was manifested the love of God toward us,
because that God sent his only begotten Son into the world, that we
might live through him" (1 John 4:9). The Psalmist also
proclaimed, "Thou art my Son; this day
have I begotten thee" (Psalm 2:7; Acts 13:33; Heb. 1:5;
5:5). In both of these verses, Jesus was declared to be the Son
before He was born. How can that be? The term expresses the close
relationship Jesus has with the Father in eternity (John 17), and in
the mind of God, He was foreordained to redeem the world "before the foundation of the world"
(1 Peter 1:18-20).
31. "Whose Son was He in BETHLEHEM'S
The virgin birth clearly reveals Jesus to be the Son of God. To
Mary, before Jesus' birth, the angel said, "The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of
the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing
which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God"
32. "Is not the sum of your doctrine
simply this: He that lives Closest to the creek, lives closest to
the Lord? He that lives furthest from the creek, lives furtherest
from the Lord? Does this not place the DESERT dwellers at a distinct
disadvantage? Then a Man's Salvation would be simple or difficult
according to his GEOGRAPHICAL location? Does this sound like Jesus
Christ in John 3:16?"
In reality, this question places God
to blame where man chooses to live. Since God teaches, "He that believeth and is baptized shall
be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned," then
it is up to us to obey it no matter how difficult or easy it might
be for us. Let's state the question another way. Take for example
the person raised in an ungodly environment as opposed to one raised
in a godly environment. Which would more easily be able or more apt
to come to the Lord? Does God's love change because of the place we
live or the environment we live in? Of course not! Or, consider the
person who was raised a Baptist, and who has difficulty accepting
the Bible doctrine of baptism for the remission of sins as taught in
Acts 2:38. Is this person at less of an advantage? Probably so, but
nevertheless the Bible doctrine of baptism is still true.
33. "Are the FAMILY of God, the KINGDOM OF
GOD and the CHURCH OF GOD ALL one and the SAME???"
If A equals C and B
equals C, then A equals B. Things equal to the same thing are equal
to each other. A equals C, or to put it another way, under the New
Testament dispensation, the family (house) of God is the church of
God. Paul wrote, "But if I tarry long,
that thou mayest know how thou oughtest to behave thyself in the house of God, which is the church of the
living God, the pillar and ground of the truth" (1
Tim. 3:15). And B equals C, or to put it another way under the New
Testament dispensation, the kingdom of God is the church of God.
Notice how Jesus interchanges the terms with reference to the same
thing in Matthew 16:18,19: "And I say
also unto thee, That thou art Peter, and upon this rock I will build my church; and the gates of
hell shall not prevail against it. And I
will give unto thee the keys of the kingdom of heaven: and
whatsoever thou shalt bind on earth shall be bound in heaven: and
whatsoever thou shalt loose on earth shall be loosed in
heaven." Therefore, A equals B, and the family, kingdom,
and church of God are all one and the same.
34. "Do all who belong to the family of
God also belong to the Church of God?"
Again, Paul wrote the house or family
of God is the church (1 Tim. 3:15). All who are members of the
church are members of God's family.
35. "Did God have a family before
Yes. Under the Old Testament economy,
the nation of Israel was the family of God, but because they
rejected God, God ultimately rejected them. Moses declared to the
nation of Israel, "Moreover all these
curses shall come upon thee, and shall pursue thee, and overtake
thee, till thou be destroyed; because thou hearkenedst not unto the
voice of the LORD thy God, to keep his commandments and his statutes
which he commanded thee" (Deut. 28:45). Israel hearkenedst
not, and God rejected them as He promised. The term kingdom of God
was used in the same way. Under the Old Testament age, the nation of
Israel was the kingdom of God, but it was taken from them. Jesus
said, "The kingdom of God shall be
taken from you, and given to a nation bringing forth the fruits
thereof" (Matt. 21:43).
36. "Then is it now possible to become a
member of the family of God and not become a member of the Church at
the same time?"
Since, under the New Testament
dispensation, the family of God is the church (1 Tim. 3:15), then it
is not presently possible for a person to be a member of the family
of God and not be a member of the church.
37. "When and How did Jesus become a
member of the Church of Christ?"
While Jesus lived on earth, He was
not a member of the church of Christ. During His personal ministry,
He promised to build His church (Matt. 16:18). Who's church? His
church -- the church of Christ. Furthermore, He purchased the church
with His own blood (Acts 20:28). Therefore, the church belongs to
Him. Thus, the church is Christ's church or church of Christ. Today,
He is the head of the church (Eph. 1:22-23). Since, the church was
in promise during the personal ministry of Jesus, then He could not
have been a member of it.
Since this question was asked by
Baptists, then the question should be turned around. When and how
did Jesus become a member of the Baptist Church? The answer is
simply He was not and could not have been. The Baptist Church did
not exist until 1607. Of course, many would say John the Baptist was
a member of the Baptist Church, and when Jesus was baptized, He
became a member of the Baptist Church. However, there are at least
two things wrong with that. First, John the Baptist was not a
Baptist in the denominational sense of the word. The original word
means baptizer or one who administers baptism. John was a baptizer
-- not a Baptist. Second, Jesus was baptized of John before He
promised to build His church. Therefore, if Jesus was baptized into
the Baptist Church, then the Baptist Church could not be the Lord's
church which He promised to build. Of course, Jesus was not and
could not have been baptized into the Baptist Church since it did
not exist until 1607. The Lord's church, the church of Christ, was
not established until after His death on the day of Pentecost in
38. "When and How did the Apostles become
members of the Church of Christ?"
The Bible does not reveal when the
apostles were baptized. Therefore, that is a secret that belongs to
God (Deut. 29:29). Paul may have alluded to this in 1 Corinthians
12:28, "And God hath set some in the
church, first apostles, secondarily prophets, thirdly
teachers...." Since John's baptism was "for the remission of sins" (Mark 1:4; Luke
3:3), then it was not necessary for those who had been baptized of
John to be baptized again with Christ's baptism (the baptism
instituted by Christ in the great commission [Matt. 28:19; Mark
16:16]) which, also, was for the remission of sins. The question
then arises about Acts 19, why were those baptized with John's
baptism commanded to be baptized again? The answer is simple. They
were baptized with John's baptism after the cross. John's baptism,
like all Old Testament doctrine, was taken out of the way and nailed
to the cross (Col. 2:14). On the day of Pentecost in 30 AD, Christ's
baptism (of the great commission, Mark 16:16) came into effect and
John's baptism went out of effect. The day of Pentecost is when they
became members of the church of Christ.
39. "Was John's Baptism, Christian
No, John's baptism was not "Christian baptism." The
baptism of the great commission is for an alien sinner, not a
Christian. Therefore it is not "Christian baptism." The
purpose of John's baptism had one similarity to that of Christ's
baptism today -- "for the remission of
sins." However, John's baptism was for the house of Israel
to prepare the way of the Lord. Further, it was a baptism of
repentance, whereas Christ's baptism, the baptism of the great
commission (Mark 16:16), is for those who have already repented.
Also, as we have previously noted, John's baptism is not presently
in effect, whereas Christ's baptism (Mark 16:16) will be in effect
until the end of time.
40. "Who Baptized Jesus Christ?"
3:13-17; Mark 1:9-11; & Luke 3:21-22 declare John the baptizer
baptized Jesus. From Matthew's account, we learn that John would
have hindered Jesus from being baptized and said, "I have need to be baptized of thee." Some say
John was so humbled by the fact that Jesus came to him. However,
based on Jesus' explanation, John knew Jesus was a righteous man who
did not need to be baptized for the remission of sins. So, Jesus
explained He wanted John to baptize Him "to fulfill all righteousness." Because of the
situation surrounding the Lord's baptism, the Spirit of God
descending like a dove and the voice out of heaven saying, "this is my beloved Son," this
event clearly reveals Jesus was the divinely appointed Messiah.
41. "Did Jesus Christ have Christian
Again, the answer is no. Christ instituted the baptism of the great
commission (Mark 16:16) after His resurrection when He told the
apostles to go into all the world to preach and/or teach the Gospel.
His testament, the New Testament, did not go into effect until after
His death when His death, burial and resurrection was first preached
on the day of Pentecost in 30 AD.
42. "Have you received the same kind of
Baptism, Jesus and the Apostles received?"
No. Jesus was baptized "to fulfill all righteousness."
He did not receive the remission of sins because He had no sin.
Because I have sinned, I have been baptized in the name of Jesus
Christ for the remission of sins as the Apostles commanded according
to New Testament teaching. This is the baptism to which all men
everywhere are to submit.
43. "Is Jesus Christ the Head of the
Church of Christ?"
According to Ephesians 1:22,23, He
44. "Since the Head of the Church received
ONLY John's Baptism, is not John's Baptism, Christian Baptism?"
was in preparation for the coming of the Lord. The church was
established upon the Lord's death, burial, and resurrection. John's
baptism was at the beginning of the Lord's ministry on earth,
whereas Christ's baptism was established after His ministry on
earth. Those are two separate ends of the Lord's earthly ministry.
Thus, John's baptism cannot be Christ's baptism as taught and
practiced in the book of Acts.
45. "Or Has the Head of the Church
received one KIND of Baptism and the Church altogether another
That is exactly the case, and it has to be the case. Why? Jesus had
no sins to be remitted. All other persons need their sins remitted.
Thus, Christ's baptism is for the remission of sins (Acts 2:38;
46. "Alexander Campbell received BAPTIST
BAPTISM, and died with it. Did he go to heaven or hell? Campbell
never did repudiate this baptism by a Baptist preacher, was he saved
What Alexander Campbell did or did not do proves nothing. A "thus saith the Lord" is the
authority or standard. The Lord said, "He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he
that believeth not shall be damned" (Mark 16:16).
47. "What kind of Baptism did the Apostles
receive? Were they saved or Lost?"
As we have clearly stated, the
apostles were baptized with John's baptism for the remission of sins
before the New Testament dispensation. Thus, they were saved.
48. "What kind of Baptism did these
Disciples who were baptized by the Apostles on the authority of
Christ during His personal ministry receive? John 4:1-2. Were they
saved or Lost? Was this before Pentecost?"
During the earthly ministry of
Jesus, His disciples baptized according to the Lord's instructions.
Jesus' baptism during His personal ministry was like John's in that
it was in preparation of the coming Messianic kingdom, the church.
Just as John preached the coming of the kingdom, so Jesus did the
same (Matt. 3:2; 4:17). Though this baptism was for the remission of
sins, it was not into "the name of the
Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit" as taught
in the great commission (Matt. 28:19), and which was first
proclaimed on the day of Pentecost in Acts 2. These disciples were
saved because they lived under a different dispensation. Today, all
who are baptized must be baptized with the baptism Christ instituted
in the great commission which was "for
the remission of sins" (Mark 16:16; Acts 2:38; 3:19;
these questions about John's baptism prove the Baptist position?
Absolutely not! Why? Because John baptized "for the remission of sins."
Therefore, John's baptism is not Baptist baptism! Baptists
believe and teach a person is saved before baptism. Thus, their
baptism cannot be for the remission of sins.
49. "How was Abraham Saved? David? Enoch?
John the Baptist? The Virgin Mary? The Demoniac of Gedara? The
These were all saved by a working,
obedient faith. "By faith Abraham,
when he was called to go out into a place which he should after
receive for an inheritance, obeyed; and he went out, not knowing
whither he went" (Heb. 11:8). Enoch pleased God (Heb.
11:5). How? Because he lived as God instructed, and God translated
him. The same could be said of David and the others. Under the age
or dispensation in which they lived, they obeyed God, and God
rewarded them. Today, we must also live by faith -- the same kind of
faith they had. A faith that is living, active and obedient. It is a
faith that moves one to obey the Lord by being baptized for the
remission of sins.
50. "How were sinners saved between the
Crucifixion of Christ and the Day of Pentecost?"
The same way they were
saved before the crucifixion. Christ's testament could not go into
effect until after it was made known which took place on the day of
Pentecost in AD 30. John's baptism looked forward to or in prospect
of Christ's death, burial, and resurrection. Christ's baptism looks
back to the reality of the Lord's death, burial, and resurrection.
51. "How is Abraham the FATHER of the
FAITHFUL when he was not Baptized by a Campbellite preacher?"
Where in the
standard of all religious matters, does the Bible say anything about
a "Campbellite" or "Baptist" preacher? It
doesn't. Those who are faithful to God and His word do not say, "I am of Paul and I of Apollos; and I of
Cephas; and I of Christ" (1 Cor. 1:12). Such language
reveals a contentious attitude -- not desiring to know the truth.
What made Abraham
faithful? Was it faith alone or was it faith coupled with works of
obedience? James answers the question. "Was not Abraham our father justified by works, when he
had offered Isaac his son upon the altar? Seest thou how faith
wrought with his works, and by works was faith made perfect? And the
Scripture was fulfilled which saith, Abraham believed God, and it
was imputed unto him for righteousness: and he was called the Friend
of God. Ye see then how that by works a man is justified, and not by
faith only" (James 2:21-24). Abraham was the father of the
faithful because under the covenant in which he lived, he
demonstrated his faith by obedience to God. In the same way, we,
today, are faithful to God when we receive His word according to the
covenant under which we live and obey it. Thereby, we follow the
father of the faithful.
52. "Since the same FAITH dwelled in
Timothy, his Mother and his Grandmother, were they not all saved
The passage this question alludes to is 2 Timothy 1:5 which speaks
about the "unfeigned faith"
of Timothy's grandmother, Lois, and mother, Eunice. The first
time we are introduced to Timothy is in Acts 16:1 which says, "Then came he to Derbe and Lystra: and,
behold, a certain disciple was there, named Timotheus, the son of a
certain woman, which was a Jewess, and believed; but his father was
a Greek." What does Luke mean when he said Eunice "was a Jewess, and believed?" By
nationality, she was a Jewess, and religiously, she was a believer
which refers to the fact that she was a Christian. When Luke wrote
she "believed," it doesn't
mean she only believed or had a knowledge of facts. She believed and
her belief was coupled with faithful obedience which included
obedience to God's command to be baptized for the remission of sins
(cf. Acts 2:38; 22:16).
53. "Who preached the Gospel to Abraham?
Paul wrote in Galatians 3:8, "And the scripture, foreseeing that God
would justify the heathen through faith, preached before the gospel
unto Abraham, saying, In thee shall all nations be blessed."
As we examine this passage, please notice that God teaches or
preaches through Scripture. Thus, God through His Scripture preached
the Gospel to Abraham. The entirety of the Gospel? No, God
prophesied concerning the Gospel the heathens or Gentiles would be
justified through faith. What kind of faith -- empty faith like the
devils or obedient faith like Abraham? Of course, obedient faith for
a person cannot be justified "by faith
only" (James 2:24).
54. "What Prophet in the Old Testament
prophesied of BAPTISM?"
There are many things about the
church that are revealed in the Old Testament through prophecy.
However, there are some specifics that are not. For example, where
in the Old Testament is the collection
prophesied or the Lord's supper.
Both are seen in types or shadows, but neither are specifically
prophesied. The same is true concerning baptism. Naaman was told by
Elisha to dip in the Jordan seven times to be cleansed of his
leprosy, and when he did, Naaman's skin was like that of a little
child (1 Kings 5). Paul also showed the shadow through Moses and the
children of Israel as they left the land of bondage saying, they "were all baptized unto Moses in the cloud
and in the sea" (1 Cor. 10:1,2). Before baptism, they were
in bondage, after baptism, they were made free. Further, Peter
showed the figure through Noah in 1 Peter 3:20,21. Concerning the
ark, Peter said, "eight souls were
saved by water." Interestingly, the same water that
destroyed the old world saved Noah and his family. Again, water was
God's dividing line. It separated the new world from the old and the
saved from the lost. "The like figure
whereunto even baptism doth also now save us..."
55. "Did Peter preach to Cornelius that
all the prophets bore witness to the fact that whosoever believeth
in Him shall receive remission of sin? Acts 10:43. Do you believe
what Peter said?"
A most basic rule of interpretation
concerns context. "A text out of context is a pretext to
religious error." Many Baptists stop with Acts 10:43, but just
four verses later, Peter asked, "Can
any man forbid water, that these should not be baptized, which have
received the Holy Ghost as well as we? And he commanded them to be
baptized in the name of the Lord" (Acts 10:47,48). If
baptism was unnecessary, then why did he command it? The command
shows the necessity of the act. The act of baptism, as well as
repentance and confession, is included in the word
"believeth" when it is taken in its context. James proves
this when he said "ye see then how
that by works a man is justified, and not by faith only"
56. "If Peter preached Baptism, FOR or IN
ORDER TO REMISSION OF SINS in Acts 2:38, why did he not preach the
same thing to Cornelius in Acts 10:42,43?"
Peter did preach the necessity of
baptism! The belief or faith Peter preached included obedience which
in turn included baptism as clearly revealed in verses 47 and 48 of
57. "In your sugar text which you yourself
do not understand (Acts 2:38) how many words BETWEEN the word
BAPTISM and the word REMISSION? You will have to cut 11 words out of
your text before you can JOIN BAPTISM TO REMISSION OF SIN. What
means these 11 words -- which you and your brethren always
Does the number of words between two concepts necessarily mean the
two concepts are not connected? What kind of reasoning is that? In
question 12 (p.36), Baptist Davis pointed out a person is redeemed
by the precious blood of Christ (1 Peter 1:18,19). Did you know
there are twenty words between "redeemed" and
"precious?" Does that mean redemption is not through the
precious blood of Christ? Of course not!
What about Acts 2:38? "Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be
baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the
remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy
Ghost." From this verse, there are a number of things we
learn about baptism. First, a person must repent before he or she is
baptized. Second, baptism is commanded of "every one of you" referring to those who heard
the word preached in the sermon which prompted their question, "what shall we do?" Third,
baptism is to be "in the name of Jesus
Christ" which means by His authority. And finally, baptism
is "for the remission of sins"
or more literally "into deliverance of sins." Those
four points cover the eleven words between "baptism" and
58. "What is the Greek Word translated or
rather Anglicized into the word Christ in Acts 2:38? Why don't you
put the exact Greek word in the text and then read Acts 2:38 to your
people and quit making a childish play on the preposition FOR? When
you do this you find complete harmony with Acts 10:43 and John 3:16.
-Just a little kink right here give the people the original there-
you won't have to notice the preposition so technically."
is absurd! I honestly do not know how to put it any other way. If
the Greek word is Anglicized, then how can anyone read it without
the "exact Greek word?" This question implies that to
emphasize a preposition is to make a childish play. In the first
place, God inspired Luke to write the preposition just as much as He
inspired him to write the word "Christ." No one has the
right to take away the preposition (Rev. 22:18,19). Also, consider
this: Jesus said, "If ye love me, keep
my commandments" (John 14:15). Because of our love for
"Christ,"we strive to do exactly what He commanded. To do
all that He said even to the smallest preposition is to show true
love for the Savior. To squirm around such clear God-given
commandments such as baptism is to show the lack of one's love.
Finally, consider this question: Why does Baptist Davis want this
inspired preposition "for" minimized? Is it not because it
disagrees with his doctrine of "faith only?"
59. "Does the word WATER as used in John
3:5 mean Baptism? Why didn't Christ say what he meant to say? If he
really meant Baptism -when he said water- by the same reasoning - He
evidently meant Baptism in the next Chapter (John 4:7-15). Read
again the story of the Woman at the well -substitute the word
Baptism for Water everywhere it is found in the story exactly as you
substitute the word Baptism for water in John 3:5- see what a story
you make. False Doctrines always lead to muddy water. Where the
Bible speaks we speak."
Another grasping at straw! Where does
he get these ideas? Does he believe he has some official book on the
doctrine of the Campbellites? Surely, no one really believes this
stuff. Every time the word "water" is used in Scripture
does not necessarily refer to baptism. No accountable person could
be so foolish as to believe such. However, this does not mean it can
never refer to baptism? It would be just as foolish to believe this,
but that is the implication of this question.
In John 3:5, Jesus said, "Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a
man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the
kingdom of God." In explanation to Nicodemus, Jesus was
speaking of the new birth. The new birth consists of both water and
Spirit. What birth in the New Testament consists of these two
elements? Baptism! Baptism is a birth from which one is raised to
walk a newness of life (Rom. 6:4). Baptism is to be done in water
for the eunuch said, "See, here is
water; what doth hinder me to be baptized" (Acts 8:36)?
And, baptism is connected with the Spirit for Paul wrote, "For by one Spirit are we all baptized
into one body..." (1 Cor. 12:13). John 3:3-5 is about
baptism -- not because the word water is used, but because the
concepts of the new birth, water, and Spirit are used to refer to a
60. "The sermon to Nicodemus was BEFORE
Pentecost - Did Christ jump the gun by preaching to him when
Pentecost had not come."
Hebrews 9:17 says, "For a testament is of force after men are dead:
otherwise it is of no strength at all while the testator
liveth." When is a testament written? After men are dead
or while the testator liveth? Jesus revealed His Will while He was
alive, and the Holy Spirit brought "all things" to the
apostles' remembrance after Jesus' death (John 14:26). Thus, Jesus
was teaching Nicodemus His Testament which would go into effect on
the day of Pentecost. As previously noted, Jesus both taught and
practiced water baptism for the remission of sins throughout His
personal ministry on earth (see John 4:1; also see question 15,
61. "Is the term 'CHURCH OF GOD' a
Yes. Speaking to the elders at
Ephesus, Paul said, "Take heed
therefore unto yourselves, and to all the flock, over the which the
Holy Ghost hath made you overseers, to feed the church of God, which
he hath purchased with his own blood" (Acts 20:28; see
also 1 Cor. 1:2; 10:32; 11:22; 15:9; 2 Cor. 1:1; Gal. 1:13; 1 Tim.
62. "Do you recognize people who call
themselves CHURCH OF GOD?"
Absolutely. We recognize the church
of God at Ephesus from which the elders came to Miletus to speak
with Paul. We also recognize the churches of God at Corinth and in
Galatia. However, we do not have fellowship with the charismatic
"Church of God" today -- not because of their name, but
because of their so-called miracles and tongues as well as their
human origin and organization.
63. "Does wearing a Scriptural NAME alone
mean that BODY is a Scriptural Body? Upon that grounds do you refuse
to recognize the Holiness people who call themselves by the name
CHURCH OF GOD?"
Wearing a Scriptural name alone does
not mean a congregation or group of congregations is in fact the
Lord's church. We apply the same principle to counterfeiters. A
counterfeiter may wear my name, but he is not me. Paul said Satan
appears as an angel of light (2 Cor. 11:14), but he certainly is not
an angel of light. The application Paul makes is this, "Therefore it is no great thing if his
ministers also be transformed as the ministers of righteousness;
whose end shall be according to their works" (2 Cor.
11:15). Therefore, it takes more to be the Lord's church than to
wear a Scriptural name. Consider now another application that ought
to be made. If today a person was searching for the church we read
about in the New Testament, he or she might begin by looking for
churches which are called by a Scriptural name such as "the
church of Christ" or "the church of God." Any others
could be quickly eliminated; and, that certainly includes the
64. "If those people are going to Hell in
spite of their name (According to your doctrine they are all lost),
Then it will take MORE THAN A BIBLE name to save them -will it
is foolish to think only wearing a name can mean anything. A name
must be supported by one's actions, but wearing the wrong name is
also wrong. If a counterfeit wears the wrong name, all will
recognize him as being wrong. Family names have reputations -- some
good and some bad. A son may wear a good family name, but unless his
actions are good, he does not hold up the family name. Churches may
wear the name of Christ, but that alone does not mean they are the
church of Christ. However, if a church does not wear the name of
Christ, it is certainly not a church of Christ.
65. "If it takes more than a BIBLE NAME to
save the Holiness, this they will admit: Will it take more than a
Bible name to save you? Will you admit it?"
A Bible name alone
will not save anyone, and I personally do not know any Gospel
preacher or any other member of the church of Christ who would say
such a foolish thing. To wear the name "Christian" does
not mean you are one; and, it takes more to be a Christian than
wearing the name.
66. "Were the Converts and Disciples
called CHRISTIANS on the Day of Pentecost? Were they saved? The
Antioch Believers (Acts 11:26) were first to be called CHRISTIANS
(10 years after Pentecost). Were the Antioch Believers any more
saved than the Pentecost Believers? Did they call THEMSELVES
Christians -- or were they CALLED CHRISTIANS?"
Although those who
obeyed the Gospel on Pentecost were not called Christians until
later, that does not in any way mean they were not Christians. The
term "Christian" simply refers to one who is a follower of
Christ, and those who obeyed Christ on Pentecost were followers of
Christ. They were Christians though not called Christians. Therefore
to be a Christian is equivalent to being saved. Christians in
Antioch did the same thing those in Jerusalem did to be saved or to
As to whether they called themselves Christians, or were called
Christians, the text says, "And the
disciples were called Christians first in Antioch." The
word "called" means divinely called and is a fulfillment
of Isaiah 62:2. God, through Paul and Barnabas, called them
Christians. If God calls one a Christian, then it is only fitting
for Christians to call themselves Christians.
67. Did Jesus or His Apostles anywhere in the 4
Gospels use the word Christians? Did
Jesus know what to call his Followers? If it is of Divine Origin --
why did not the name Originate with Jesus the True Authority in
matters of religion?
Jesus and the apostles, during the
Lord's ministry, did not use the name "Christian." Why did
God choose not to call His disciples Christians until Acts 11:26?
God simply does not reveal why. "The
secret things belong unto the LORD our God: but those things which
are revealed belong unto us and to our children for ever, that we
may do all the words of this law" (Deut. 29:29). All we
can say is it was according to God's plan -- plain and simple.
68. "Did Jesus say to Nicodemus 'Ye Must
be born again' or did He say 'Ye must be Baptized and wear the name
As we have previously noted, to be
born again is the same as being baptized. Baptism is the new birth.
Romans 6:3-18 makes this clear. One dies (to sin), is buried (in
water), and is raised up out of the water to live a new life. One
cannot walk a new life without it (v.4). When a person obeys the
Gospel and is baptized, he or she is born again and is saved. Upon
being saved, God adds him or her to the church (Acts 2:47). When one
is added to the church, he or she is wearing the name of Christ
because the church God adds the saved to is the church of Christ.
Therefore, they are wearing the name of Christ both collectively as
the church of Christ and individually as Christians.
69. "Were the members of 'Church of God at
Corinth' LOST because Paul failed to call them CHURCH OF
In the Bible, the church of God is the church of Christ. They are
one and the same. Listen again to Acts 20:28, "...the Holy Ghost hath made you overseers, to feed the church of God, which he hath purchased
with his own blood." With whose own blood? This text says
God's own blood. But, wasn't it Christ's blood? Yes. Then how can it
say, God's? Because Jesus is God. Therefore, the church of God is
the church of Christ.
70. "Is it possible for anyone to be a
Believer who is a member of a church not called the CHURCH OF
Yes, the church at Corinth and Galatia were called the church of
God. Is it scriptural for a Christian to be a member of a church
with an unscriptural name? No. God does not add a person to a
man-made church. He adds them to His church which is "the
church of Christ," "the church of God," "the
church of the living God" (1 Tim. 3:15), and "church of
the firstborn" (Heb. 12:23). The Baptist Church cannot be found
in the Scriptures, and it has an unscriptural name.
71. "Were these people lost who were
members of the Church of God at Corinth?"
Absolutely not! God added them to
His church, and those who remained faithful until death are enjoying
paradise. However, the church of God in Corinth is not the holiness
"Church of God" denomination of today.
72. Were there any Churches in the New
Testament -not called by the name-CHURCH OF CHRIST? Were their
members saved or lost?"
Yes, we have pointed out the church
is called, "the church" (Acts 2:47), "the church of
Christ," "the church of God," "the church of the
living God" (1 Tim. 3:15), and "church of the
firstborn" (Heb. 12:23). Since God does the adding, and they
were added to the church, then they were saved.
73. "Is the term THE CHURCH OF CHRIST
found as a title to any one CHURCH in the Bible anywhere? Give CASE
AND NUMBER OF ROM. 16:16."
The case of the word
"churches" in Romans 16:16 is nominative which means it is
the subject of the sentence, and the number is plural. What does
that prove? Nothing? If the churches were collectively called
"churches of Christ," then it must be each individual
congregation was known as a church of Christ. To say otherwise would
74. "Where was your CHURCH OF CHRIST when Alexander
Campbell was being baptized by a Baptist preacher?"
Let's think about the
term "your church of Christ." This term shows a double
possession. Is it "your church" or is it Christ's church?
Quite frankly, I do not have a church. I was not crucified for one,
I did not purchase the church with my blood, nor was anyone baptized
into my name. And, that is the way I want it! I am not qualified to
die for the sins of the world. I am not perfect as the Lord is. The
church of Christ does not belong to anyone but Christ.
Where was the church
of Christ when Alexander Campbell was being baptized by a Baptist
preacher? Jesus said, "...I will build
my church; and the gates of hell shall not prevail against it"
(Matt. 16:18). Jesus promised that His church or the church of
Christ would always prevail and would never be destroyed. Since it
is eternal, then the church of Christ was in existence before,
during, and after the life of Alexander Campbell.
75. "Was Elder Luce, the Baptist preacher who Baptized
Campbell, a Christian? Did Baptist Baptism put Alexander Campbell
into the Church of Christ? If not, when and how did Campbell become
a member of the Church of Christ?"
The standard of how a person is added
to the Lord's church is not Alexander Campbell nor elder Luce. The
standard is the word of God. What does God say? God says after Hearing the Word, a person must Believe Jesus is the Christ (Mark 16:16).
Upon this belief, a person then must Repent
of his or her sins (Acts 2:38). Then, a person must Confess Christ before men as the eunuch did
(Acts 8:36-38). Finally, a person must be Baptized into Christ for the remission of their sins. Saul
of Tarsus was told, "And now why
tarriest thou? arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins,
calling on the name of the Lord" (Acts 22:16). When a
person has done this, then God adds him or her to His church (Acts
consider this, a person's salvation is not determined by the one
baptizing. If that be the case, then a person's salvation is
determined by another. One day every person will stand before the
judgment seat of Christ, and all will be judged "according to that he hath done, whether it be good or
bad" (2 Cor. 5:10). We will not be judged by what others
have done, but what we have done.
If Campbell was baptized with Baptist
baptism, then he was not saved. Why? Because Baptist baptism is not
done for the remission of sins for Baptists believe they have
already received forgiveness of sins. If Campbell was baptized "in the name of Jesus Christ for the
remission of sins" by a Baptist preacher, then he obeyed
God, and God added him to the church of Christ.
Let me hasten to point out that what
Alexander Campbell (or any other man) did or did not do has no
nothing to do with salvation. Our appeal is, "what does the
76. "If Baptist Baptism put Campbell INTO CHRIST and HIS
CHURCH -why will not Baptist Baptism do the same for people
Baptist baptism is not the one baptism of Ephesians 4:5. In question
19 and 20 (page 37), we pointed out the purpose of the baptism that
Christ commissioned, and Baptist baptism is not for that purpose --
the remission of sins. Therefore, like all unscriptural baptisms,
Baptist baptism does nothing but get someone wet.
77. "If Elder Luce did not Baptize Campbell INTO Christ
when and where and HOW did Campbell ever get into Christ since he
died with Baptist Baptism, and never did repudiate it?"
If Campbell was
"in Christ," he was baptized into Christ (Gal. 3:27) like
everyone else who is in Christ. When, where, and how Campbell was
baptized may be important to Baptist Davis, but those who simply
make every effort to follow the Bible recognize Campbell's baptism
is not authoritative. Again, our appeal is to the Bible and its
authority, not men.
78. "If Campbell was baptized into the Church of Christ
by Luce's act, then was not the Church of Christ in fact already
some, like Baptist Davis, Campbell founded the "church of
Christ." If that be the case, then members of the "church
of Christ" would be "Campbellites." However, the
church of Christ was built by Christ on the day of Pentecost in AD
30 during the days of the Roman Empire in the city of Jerusalem as
prophesied by Isaiah 2 and Daniel 2. So, yes, the church of Christ
existed before, during, and after the life of Alexander Campbell.
79. "Then, How could Campbell's movement, 'RESTITUTION',
'THE REFORMATION', 'THE CHRISTIAN ASSOCIATION', 'DISCIPLES OF
CHRIST', 'CHURCH OF CHRIST', CHRISTIAN CHURCH', ECT., EVER become
the ORIGINAL CHURCH OF CHRIST?"
Campbell's concept was simply to
return to the New Testament. Others before he lived, during his
lifetime, and after him, have had the same concept. Having the
desire to do God's will, and God's will only, does not in any way
make one a "Campbellite." When a person does God's will,
not adding to it nor taking from it, then upon the obedience of that
person, God adds him or her to His church -- not Campbell's
80. "Are you a member of the ORIGINAL GENUINE CHURCH OF
CHRIST or the one that grew out of Campbell's Reform movement? The
Church of which Campbell was a member, he got in by BAPTIST BAPTISM.
DO YOU HAVE THE SAME BAPTISM? Then, if not, you do NOT BELONG to the
original New Testament Church, but to the one that grew out of
Campbell's movement ... SELAH."
If a person simply obeys God, then he
or she is not a part of Campbell's or any other man's reform
movement. Is he or she a part of a reformation? Absolutely! Every
person ought to be "transformed by the
renewing of the mind." We ought to reform to God's will.
Rather than holding on to the doctrines of men, we ought to turn to
God and His will and obey Him. This is called repentance. Jesus
said, "I tell you, Nay: but, except ye
repent, ye shall all likewise perish" (Luke 13:3). When a
person will give up his man-made creeds and be like the Bereans and
search the Scriptures and receive the Word with all readiness of
mind, then that person is a part of a reformation -- God's
reformation. Why? Because they are striving to reform their lives
according to the standard of God's Word. When that person obeys God
and is baptized according to the Scriptures, then God adds him or
her to "the original genuine church of Christ."
81. "Can you show in History anywhere on earth, a Church
organized and operating as your self-styled Church of Christ
operates today prior to 1826? Where was it located? What your
authority? The scholarship of the world awaits your answer."
organization of the church as taught in the Bible is simple. The
head of the church is Christ (Eph. 1:22-23). Biblically, Jesus is
the only head. Thus, there are no man-made headquarters on earth of
the church of Christ. Since Jesus, the head of the church, is in
heaven, then the only rightful headquarters of the church is in
heaven (Phil. 3:20). Within the local church or congregation, there
are elders and deacons. Please notice the plurality. Paul wrote, "Paul and Timotheus, the servants of Jesus
Christ, to all the saints in Christ Jesus which are at Philippi,
with the bishops and deacons" (Phil. 1:1). From Acts 20,
we learn that elders are known by three names. Paul "called the elders of the church" to him. In
the original language, the word "elders" is the same word
as "presbyters" and refers to a man of mature age. Then,
in verse 28, Paul called them "overseers" or
"bishops" which refers to the office of ruling or
overseeing. Finally, they are "to feed
the church of God." This is the word shepherd or pastor
which alludes to their duties of feeding and tending the flock of
God. The qualifications of elders, bishops, or pastors are found in
1 Timothy 3:1-7 and Titus 1:5-9. Deacons are servants who help
elders. Their qualifications are found in 1 Timothy 3:8-13. Working
with elders and under their oversight are evangelists or preachers
whose God-given responsibility is to "preach the word" (2 Tim. 4:2).
With this in mind and
going back to Mr. Davis' question, the answer is Yes! The church in
the first century throughout the world was organized with Christ as
the head, elders as overseers, and deacons as servants. Thus, the
New Testament is the authority, and scholars do not need to wait for
an answer. The true genuine church of Christ through the ages has
always been organized this same way. The Baptist Church is not
organized this way, therefore, it is not the true genuine church of
82. "Where was YOUR CHURCH OF CHRIST from Pentecost until
Campbell's day? Almost 1800 years are unaccounted for. Where were
YOU and your brethren?"
Again Mr. Davis, the church of Christ
belongs to Christ, not to me or any other person. Since Jesus taught
the gates of hell would not prevail against the church (Matt.
16:18), then the church is eternal. Therefore, the church of Christ
existed through the ages. To say it did not exist is to deny the
words of Jesus. How did it exist? Because few will travel the strait
and narrow way (Matt. 7:14), many believe it existed in small
obscure groups. Others believe it existed in "seed form."
The word is the seed of the kingdom (Luke 8:4-15), and whenever or
wherever the word is followed, then the church of Christ exists. The
New Testament is the record the church of Christ existed in the
first century. If we follow the New Testament pattern concerning the
church, we will be the same as they. Therefore, we plead for men to
put away the doctrines of men and follow the pattern set forth
within the pages of the New Testament.
It is not necessary to be able to
"rattle the chain" of succession all the way back to the
first century. The Baptist Church certainly cannot! Let us point out
again, if men do today what men did in the first century to become Christians, worship as Christians and live
as Christians, then men today are true genuine Christians and
members of the one body -- the church of Christ.
83. "Is it not a fact the ANTI-ORGAN wing of Campbell's
movement split off a few years ago and got their younger set
registered in Washington as THE CHURCH OF CHRIST?"
Whether a group or
movement is registered in Washington or not is immaterial. There is
no doubt the Christian Church, the Disciples of Christ, and some who
call themselves Churches of Christ are in apostasy. They are the
ones who "split off." However, that is not the case with
the true church of Christ as recorded in the New Testament. There
are counterfeits today just as there have always been those who have
departed from the faith (cf. 1 Tim. 4:1-3), but their origin is in
man, not God. Since the true church of Christ existed in the first
century, then it is the case that it can exist today, surpassing
Campbell or any other man. In fact, it does exist today as it did in
the first century.
Concerning the comment about the "anti-organ;" for the
most part, historians agree the church in the first century did not
use mechanical instruments of music. Thus, all so-called churches
"split" from a capella
worship. However, historians are not the authority. The Bible
teaches that man is not to go beyond what is written (1 Cor. 4:6; 2
John 9) and not to add to nor take away from God's Word (Rev.
22:18-19). In fact, all that is done must be authorized by God. Paul
wrote, "And whatsoever ye do in word
or deed, do all in the name of the Lord Jesus, giving thanks to God
and the Father by him" (Col. 3:17). To do something in the
name of another, is to do it by his/her authority. What saith the
Scriptures concerning music in worship? "Let the word of Christ dwell in you richly in all
wisdom; teaching and admonishing one another in psalms and hymns and
spiritual songs, singing with grace in your hearts to the Lord"
(Col. 3:16). The kind of music God authorizes for worship is
singing. Let not man add to nor take away!
84. "All Historians trace the origin of your young set
back through the organ-wing of the Campbellite Church, back to the
days of Campbell, Walter Scott and Barton W. Stone. Can you trace
your origin beyond this date? Are Historians all liars or just plain
Concerning history, someone once
said, "There is what the historians recorded, and then there is
what actually happened." For various reasons, historians do not
always get all the facts, and they do not always agree. Thus,
historians are not the authority.
Why does Mr. Davis continue to refer
to Campbellites? Based on his example, should we call him a
"Smythite." What is his purpose? Is he trying to be
demeaning or rude? Only he can answer that, but it sure makes one
wonder. Be that as it may, I'm not a Campellite! And, his
persistence in using the term doesn't change reality. In fact, I've
never even met any one who claimed to be a Campbellite. The only
persons I've ever heard use the term are those like Mr. Davis who
make charges against the church of Christ.
The origin of the church of Christ
does not go back to Campbell, Scott, or Stone. It goes back to
Christ's promise of building His church (Matt. 16:18). It goes back
to the establishment of the church on Pentecost in AD 30 (Acts 2).
It goes back to the first century -- not the nineteenth century.
85. "Your Doctrine of Church and Baptismal Salvation are
both Fundamental doctrines. Did you know that the Catholics, the
Mormons, the Jehovah Witnesses, and one Branch of the Holiness sect,
are EXACTLY in harmony with you on these points? They tell the world
the same story about Baptism and Church membership that you do --
identical doctrines. Why don't you fellowship these people?"
various motives. Some who came to Jesus were sincere and wanted to
know the Truth. Others came with no interest in the Truth. They only
wanted to trap Jesus. The preceding questions make one wonder about
the motives behind them. Is Mr. Davis trying to alienate these
people from the church of Christ? It is almost as if he is saying,
I'm in fellowship with these folks, but the "Campbellite
Church" is not. Is he really in fellowship with these churches?
Of course not, but he wants them on his side to battle his enemy --
the Truth. The Bible is the Truth, and the Truth teaches the
essentiality of baptism (Matt. 28:18-19; Mark 16:15-16; Acts 2:38;
22:16; Rom. 6:1-4; 1 Peter 3:21, etc.), and those who are baptized
are added to the church (Acts 2:47; 1 Cor. 12:13). However, baptism
is not the only Truth that must be obeyed. Baptism is only one
commandment given by God. All commandments must be obeyed to have
fellowship with God and God's people (1 John 1:7; Eph. 5:11; 2 Cor.
6:14-18; James 4:4).
86. "Why don't you tell your people the truth about the
Music Question? What means the Greek Word PSALMOS or the Hebrew word
MIZMOR? Read 1 Cor.14:15, and define the words as you go. BOTH THESE
WORDS MEAN 'TO PLAY ON THE HARP OR OTHER STRINGED INSTRUMENT'
(Liddell and Scott, 28th. Ed. Clarendon Press, 1903) (Standard
Lexicon of New Testament Greek, Souter, 1916) Would David be able to
worship at your Church should he return to earth? If Musical
Instruments are so sinful, why will a Trumpet be blown at the
Resurrection Day? Will you rise and rebuke the BLOWER of the TRUMPET
and refuse to fellowship HIM because he uses AN EVIL INSTRUMENT ON
THAT SACRED OCCASION? Read Psalm 150 for a good tonic."
One does not have to
be a Greek expert, nor does one have to have a Greek lexicon to know
the meaning of "psallo."
This word is only used five times in the New Testament in four
15:9, "And that the Gentiles might
glorify God for his mercy; as it is written, For this cause I will
confess to thee among the Gentiles, and sing
(psallo) unto thy name."
* 1 Cor.
14:15, "What is it then? I will pray
with the spirit, and I will pray with the understanding also: I will
sing (psallo) with the spirit, and I will sing
(psallo) with the understanding
Eph. 5:19, "Speaking to yourselves in
psalms and hymns and spiritual songs, singing and making melody (psallo) in
your heart to the Lord."
* James 5:13, "Is any among you afflicted? let him pray. Is any merry?
let him sing (psallo) psalms."
With one exception, this word is
translated "sing." The exception is Ephesians 5:19, and in
this passage the instrument is named -- "your heart."
There are three kinds of music: instrumental, a capella (vocal), and
mixed (vocal and instrumental). God is specific in the music He
desires in worship -- singing. In every passage in the New Testament
where music is mentioned in connection with New Testament worship,
it is singing. Since God has specified what He wants, then we must
not add to nor take away.
Though one does not have to be a
Greek scholar, there are a few observations that ought to be made
about Baptist Davis' question/statement. First, Liddell and Scott is
a Classical Greek Lexicon. The New Testament was written in koine Greek. Second, the standard of koine Greek Lexicons is Walter Bauer's
translation of William F. Arndt and F. Wilbur Gingrich. Arndt and
Gingrich defines psalmos as a
"song of praise" or "psalm, in accordance with Old
Testament usage." (Notice this is a noun and not a verb
indicating to play...) psallo is
defined in the same reference as to "sing, sing praise."
Third, if psallo means to "to
play on the harp or other stringed instrument," then according
to Ephesians 5:19, all would have to play an instrument and not just
a select group or a single individual.
One of the purposes of singing is
edification. For this reason, Paul states, "...I will sing with the understanding also" (1
Cor. 14:15) and "...teaching and
admonishing one another in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs,
singing with grace in your hearts to the Lord" (Col.
3:16). Though mechanical instruments of music may set tone and/or
mood, they do not edify nor teach. With instrumental music, one can
express excitement, anger, and tranquility, but with it, one cannot
teach anyone about Jesus, salvation, or heaven. Listen to the
exhortation of Hebrews 13:15, "By him
therefore let us offer the sacrifice of praise to God continually,
that is, the fruit of our lips giving
thanks to his name."
From a historical standpoint,
mechanical instruments of music are a "Johnny come
lately." It was introduced into the Roman church over six
hundred years after the establishment of the church in AD 30. Within
Protestant denominationalism, it is less than two hundred years old.
John Calvin, in his commentary on the twenty-third psalm said,
"Musical instruments in celebrating the praises of God would be
no more suitable than the burning of incense, the lighting of
candles, and the restoration of the other shadows of the law. The
papist therefore have foolishly borrowed this as well as many other
things from the Jews. Men who are fond of outward pomp may delight
in that noise but the simplicity which God recommends to us by the
apostles is far more pleasing to Him. The voice of man assuredly
excels all inanimate musical instruments." In Clark's
Commentary, Vol. 4, p.686, John Wesley is recorded to have said,
"I have no objection to instruments of music in our chapels
provided they are neither seen nor heard." Finally, Charles H.
Spurgeon, the great Baptist preacher who preached to ten thousand
people every Sunday in Metropolitan Tabernacle in London, said in
reference to 1 Corinthians 14:15, "I would just as soon pray to
God with machinery as to sing to God with machinery."
Concerning the trumpet
on the day of resurrection, the trumpet is not used to worship God,
it is used to call an assembly of all mankind to stand before the
great judgment seat of God. As to David, he lived under the Mosaic
law which was taken out of the way and nailed to the cross (Col.
2:14). Since David was faithful to God under the covenant in which
he lived, then we can be sure if David lived today, he would be
faithful to God under the New Testament under which we live.
87. You loudly quote Mark 16:16 (First clause only), I don't
believe that you or your brethren really believe Mark 16:16, any of
it. He that believeth and is Baptized shall be saved? Only 2 things
are mentioned. ARE YOU GOING TO HEAVEN? Your answer is I DON'T KNOW.
HOW MANY IF'S AND PROVISOS will you have to insert into Mark 16:16,
before you will take it, At least five."
To the Corinthians, Paul wrote, "But with me it is a very small thing that
I should be judged of you, or of man's judgment: yea, I judge not
mine own self" (1 Cor. 4:3). If John 3:16 and/or Mark
16:16 were the only passages needed for salvation, then God sure
wasted a lot of paper. The entirety of the Bible was given to
mankind for our salvation, not just a few select verses. Paul wrote
"All scripture is given by inspiration
of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction,
for instruction in righteousness: That the man of God may be
perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works" (2 Tim.
3:16-17). Therefore, we cannot approach the Bible with a "pick
and choose" mentality.
88. "If you lose your present salvation,
can you ever be saved a second time. Give a Chapter and verse for
Thankfully, God has "given unto us all things that pertain unto life and
godliness" (2 Peter 1:3), and therefore, He has given us
the answers to questions such as this. In Acts 8, Luke records the
evangelistic activities of Philip the evangelist. While in the city
of Samaria, Philip preached "the
things concerning the kingdom of God, and the name of Jesus
Christ." As a result of his preaching, "they were baptized, both men and women"
(v.12). Along with these, Luke mentions specifically a man
named Simon who used sorcery and bewitched the people. In verse 13,
Luke informs us Simon also believed and was baptized. Was Simon
saved when he obeyed the Gospel? Without a doubt! But don't stop
here. Keep reading. After Peter and John came to Samaria to bestow
the miraculous gifts of the Holy Spirit, Simon tried to purchase
this power. "But Peter said unto him,
Thy money perish with thee, because thou hast thought that the gift
of God may be purchased with money...for thy heart is not right in
the sight of God" (Acts 8:20-21). Was Simon saved?
Absolutely not! Under this condition, he was going to perish with
his money. Thus, Peter called him to repentance (vs.22-23), and
Simon asked Peter to pray for him (v.24). Was Simon then saved
89. "If you are saved NOW but might become
UNSAVED tomorrow, would it not be wise for God to let you DIE
If Christianity was only about receiving a reward, that might be
right. However, there is a whole lot more to being a Christian than
receiving the glories of heaven. How could we take the Gospel to the
world if we are dead (Matt. 28:18-19; Mark 16:15-16)? How could we
be "the salt of the earth"
and "the light of the world"
if we are dead (Matt. 5:13- 16)? How could we grow to maturity
and edify and encourage one another if we were dead (Eph. 4:16)?
90. "In that case, would you not be
outliving your salvation?"
God, in His wisdom, designed the
scheme of redemption, and to question God is to stand on mighty
dangerous ground. It is God's design for men to be born, but for
those who reject Christ, it is better for them not to have been
born. The same could be said of those who "have tasted the good word of God, and the powers of the
world to come, If they shall fall away..." (Heb. 6:5).
Thus, Peter said, "For it had been
better for them not to have known the way of righteousness, than,
after they have known it, to turn from the holy commandment
delivered unto them" (2 Peter 2:21).
91. "Will God let you live TOO LONG?"
"The Lord is not slack concerning his
promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to
us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should
come to repentance" (2 Peter 3:9). God our Saviour "will have all men to be saved, and to
come unto the knowledge of the truth" (1 Tim. 2:4). Thus,
God may be allowing us to live to give us an opportunity to repent.
While alive, "there is hope: for a
living dog is better than a dead lion" (Eccl. 9:4).
92. "If He does, and you die and go to
HELL, it is not God's Fault?"
Is this a statement or a question?
Does this "question" express a desire? Are you so filled
with anger towards "Campbellites" that you desire them to
be lost eternally? Dear reader, our desire is as God's. We desire
your salvation! We beg of you to "work
out your own salvation with fear and trembling" (Phil.
2:12). Obey the Gospel today (Acts 2:38)!
93. "How good will you have to be before
God saves you?"
Salvation is not determined by how
good a person is. "As it is written,
There is none righteous, no, not one" (Rom. 3:10). "For all have sinned, and come short of
the glory of God" (Rom. 3:23). But those who have obeyed
God's plan of salvation are "justified
freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ
Jesus" (Rom. 3:24). Does that mean we can live any way we
desire? Absolutely not! Paul asked, "What shall we say then? Shall we continue in sin, that
grace may abound?" Now, listen to Paul's answer: "God forbid. How shall we, that are dead
to sin, live any longer therein?" How and when does a
person die to sin? "Know ye not, that
so many of us as were baptized into Jesus Christ were baptized into
his death? Therefore we are buried with him by baptism into death:
that like as Christ was raised up from the dead by the glory of the
Father, even so we also should walk in newness of life"
94. "Did Jesus Die to save SINNERS or GOOD
Jesus said, "They that are whole have
no need of the physician, but they that are sick: I came not to call
the righteous, but sinners to repentance" (Mark 2:17).
Because all have sinned, all are in need of the Great Physician!
95. "If Baptism was essential to your
FIRST Salvation is it not also essential to being saved a second
Once a person is born into the family of God, he or she is always a
member of that family even if they depart. Like the prodigal son,
when a person leaves the Father, a person can return when he or she
comes to his or her senses. The Father will always welcome them
back. What is necessary for their return? Like Simon, the one
desiring to return to the Father must repent (Acts 8:22), must
confess their faults (James 5:16), and ask for prayers (Acts 8:24;
96. "Name one person in the Bible who was
saved a second time?"
Simon who used to be a sorcerer,
obeyed the Gospel, turned his heart away from the Lord and then
repented and asked Peter to pray for him (Acts 8:13-24). See
97. "Is not your entire program a matter
of salvation by works?"
Salvation is "the gift of God" (Eph. 2:8) and "not by works of righteousness which we
have done" (Titus 3:5). So many want to stop there but
continue with Ephesians 2:10, "For we
are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus unto good works, which
God hath before ordained that we should walk in them."
Jesus said, "So likewise ye, when
ye shall have done all those things which are commanded you, say, We
are unprofitable servants: we have done that which was our duty to
do" (Luke 17:10). We must work the works God has commanded
that we do (John 6:28-29).
98. "Do you know the difference in WORKS
and GRACE? In Works, one does something for God: In Grace, God does
something for us. Which would you rather go out to eternity with?
Something you did or something God did. Which would afford the
There are different kinds of works.
Some are done to earn something, others are done because of love and
faith and the commands of God. Works done to earn salvation are the
works mentioned in Ephesians 2:9 and Titus 3:5 -- they will not
save. A person cannot work enough to earn salvation. It is
impossible, but nonetheless, we demonstrate our love and our faith
by our works of obedience (John 14:15; James 2:24). God's grace is
bestowing favor toward someone who does not deserve it. God's gift
to man is seen in His sending His Son to be a propitiation for sin,
in providing His scheme of redemption for us to know how to contact
the blood of His Son, and in giving His word for us to know how to
live righteously in Christ Jesus. Without either grace or works of
obedience, there is no forgiveness. Both are necessary. Both are
essential. And both bring great joy!
99. "Was Paul Thankful that God sent Him
to preach only one part of the Gospel? 1 Cor. 1:17."
There should be no
doubt that Paul was thankful to God for sending him to preach the
Gospel. However, he was not sent to preach only one part of the
Gospel nor did he preach only one part of it. In fact, he told the
elders of Ephesus, "For I have not
shunned to declare unto you all the counsel of God" (Acts
20:27). Though Paul himself only baptized a few in Corinth, he still
preached baptism (1 Cor. 12:13). Because of the Corinthians' party
spirit, he was thankful to God he had baptized only Crispus, Gaius,
and the household of Stephanas (1 Cor. 1:14- 16).
100. "If Faith always includes and
involves Baptism - as you preach it - why did the Holy Spirit use
two different words - if they mean and include each other? Mark
Faith and/or belief does not necessarily include baptism. In
question 3 (p.27), we noted that belief is used in two ways: 1) as
knowledge of facts, and 2) inclusive of obedience. In Mark 16:16,
Jesus said, "He that believeth and is
baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be
damned." Before one is baptized, he or she must have the
knowledge that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God. Without
continuing in such knowledge or belief, a person will be damned.
Thus, belief must be acted upon, and the way it is acted upon in
Mark 16:16 is by being baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the
remission of sins.
101. "In Gal. 3:26, 27: þFor Ye are
ALL' (V. 26) þFor as many of you' (V. 27). Do these two
statements mean and include the same people? Had ALL the people in
verse 26 become Children of God? Had ALL of them been baptized or AS
MANY OF YOU as had been baptized?"
Galatians 3:26-27 says, "For ye are all the children of God by
faith in Christ Jesus. For as many of you as have been baptized into
Christ have put on Christ." These two verses cannot be
disconnected. "In Christ" is
a sphere of location in which are all spiritual blessings (Eph. 1:3)
including salvation (2 Tim. 2:10). In the original, the text says,
"ye are all children of God by the faith in Christ Jesus." This
is not the act of believing but the faith system or the gospel
scheme of redemption as in Acts 6:7 and Jude 3. By what means did
they become the children of God? By means of the faith or by the Gospel.
When did they become children of God (get into Christ)?
"For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put
on Christ." "For" is a
conjunction of explanation. It explains when
they received the blessings which are in Christ. Thus, baptism
is the particular step one must take to get into the marvelous
sphere of being "in Christ"
where salvation is.
PO Box 1740
Tahlequah, OK 74465
This review appeared in
"Seek The Old Paths" from
April-September, 2000, in 6 parts.
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